[2020.6] Latest lead4pass exam questions and answer tips

NewPdfeBooks Collect the Latest Valid Test Practice Questions (AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE, AWS-SYSOPS, CLSSBB, CLSSGB, IIBA-AAC). Collecting these exam exercise questions can help you improve your skills and experience! You can also search for the corresponding full exam dump via https://www.lead4pass.com!

lead4pass exam tips directory 2020:

  1. Latest Amazon AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE Exam Practice Tips
  2. Latest Amazon AWS-SYSOPS Exam Practice Tips
  3. Latest GAQM CLSSBB Exam Practice Tips
  4. Latest GAQM CLSSGB Exam Practice Tips
  5. Latest IIBA IIBA-AAC Exam Practice Tips
  6. Latest Lead4pass Discount code 2020

Latest Amazon AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE Practice exam questions and answers

[PDF] Latest Amazon AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE exam pdf: https://drive.google.com/file/d/15XNImI5kxrRVOsJVgAViJgPAguEIvTpG/view?usp=sharing

QUESTION 1
A Developer is working on an application that handles 10MB documents that contain highly-sensitive data. The
application will use AWS KMS to perform client-side encryption. What steps must be followed?
A. Invoke the Encrypt API passing the plaintext data that must be encrypted, then reference the customer-managed key
ARN in the KeyId parameter
B. Invoke the GenerateRandom API to get a data encryption key, then use the data encryption key to encrypt the data
C. Invoke the GenerateDataKey API to retrieve the encrypted version of the data encryption key to encrypt the data
D. Invoke the GenerateDataKey API to retrieve the plaintext version of the data encryption key to encrypt the data

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An application under development is required to store hundreds of video files. The data must be encrypted within the
application prior to storage, with a unique key for each video file. How should the Developer code the application?
A. Use the KMS Encrypt API to encrypt the data. Store the encrypted data key and data.
B. Use a cryptography library to generate an encryption key for the application. Use the encryption key to encrypt the
data. Store the encrypted data.
C. Use the KMS GenerateDataKey API to get a data key. Encrypt the data with the data key. Store the encrypted data
key and data.
D. Upload the data to an S3 bucket using server side-encryption with an AWS KMS key.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A web application is designed to allow new users to create accounts using their email addresses. The application will
store attributes for each user and is expecting millions of users to sign up. What should the Developer implement to
achieve the design goals?
A. Amazon Cognito user pools
B. AWS Mobile Hub user data storage
C. Amazon Cognito Sync
D. AWS Mobile Hub cloud logic

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/cognito/

QUESTION 4
A company\’s website runs on an Amazon EC2 instance and uses Auto Scaling to scale the environment during peak
times. Website users across the world are experiencing high latency due to static content on the EC2 instance, even
during non-peak hours.
Which combination of steps will resolve the latency issue? (Choose two.)
A. Double the Auto Scaling group\’s maximum number of servers.
B. Host the application code on AWS Lambda.
C. Scale vertically by resizing the EC2 instances.
D. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution to cache the static content.
E. Store the application\’s static content in Amazon S3.

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/tutorials/deliver-content-faster/

QUESTION 5
An application reads data from an Amazon DynamoDB table. Several times a day, for a period of 15 seconds, the
application receives multiple ProvisionedThroughputExceeded errors. How should this exception be handled?
A. Create a new global secondary index for the table to help with the additional requests.
B. Retry the failed read requests with exponential backoff.
C. Immediately retry the failed read requests.
D. Use the DynamoDB “UpdateItem” API to increase the provisioned throughput capacity of the table.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/bp-query-scan.html

QUESTION 6
A Developer is developing an application that manages financial transactions. To improve security, multi-factor
authentication (MFA) will be required as part of the login protocol. What services can the Developer use to meet these
requirements?
A. Amazon DynamoDB to store MFA session data, and Amazon SNS to send MFA codes
B. Amazon Cognito with MFA
C. AWS Directory Service
D. AWS IAM with MFA enabled

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/iam/details/mfa/

QUESTION 7
An application is running on an EC2 instance. The Developer wants to store an application metric in Amazon
CloudWatch. What is the best practice for implementing this requirement?
A. Use the PUT Object API call to send data to an S3 bucket. Use an event notification to invoke a Lambda function to
publish data to CloudWatch.
B. Publish the metric data to an Amazon Kinesis Stream using a PutRecord API call. Subscribe a Lambda function that
publishes data to CloudWatch.
C. Use the CloudWatch PutMetricData API call to submit a custom metric to CloudWatch. Provide the required
credentials to enable the API call.
D. Use the CloudWatch PutMetricData API call to submit a custom metric to CloudWatch. Launch the EC2 instance with
the required IAM role to enable the API call.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/mon-scripts.html

QUESTION 8
A Developer is making changes to a custom application that is currently using AWS Elastic Beanstalk.
After the Developer completes the changes, what solutions will update the Elastic Beanstalk environment with the new
application version? (Choose two.)
A. Package the application code into a .zip file, and upload, then deploy the packaged application from the AWS
Management Console
B. Package the application code into a .tar file, create a new application version from the AWS Management Console,
then update the environment by using AWS CLI
C. Package the application code into a .tar file, and upload and deploy the packaged application from the AWS
Management Console
D. Package the application code into a .zip file, create a new application version from the packaged application by using
AWS CLI, then update the environment by using AWS CLI
E. Package the application code into a .zip file, create a new application version from the AWS Management Console,
then rebuild the environment by using AWS CLI

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
An AWS Lambda function must access an external site by using a regularly rotated user name and password. These
items must be kept securely and cannot be stored in the function code.
What combination of AWS services can be used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Certificate Manager (ACM)
B. AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
C. AWS Trusted Advisor
D. AWS KMS
E. Amazon GuardDuty

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
While developing an application that runs on Amazon EC2 in an Amazon VPC, a Developer identifies the need for
centralized storage of application-level logs. Which AWS service can be used to securely store these logs?
A. Amazon EC2 VPC Flow Logs
B. Amazon CloudWatch Logs
C. Amazon CloudSearch
D. AWS CloudTrail

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/answers/logging/centralized-logging/

QUESTION 11
A company maintains an application responsible for processing several thousand external callbacks each day. The
company\’s System administrators want to know how many callbacks are being received on a rolling basis, and they
want this data available for 10 days.
The company also wants the ability to issue automated alerts if the number of callbacks exceeds the defined
thresholds.
What is the MOST cost-effective way to address the need to track and alert on these statistics?
A. Push callback data to an Amazon RDS database that can be queried to show historical data and to alert on exceeded
thresholds.
B. Push callback data to AWS X-Ray and use AWS Lambda to query, display, and alert on exceeded thresholds.
C. Push callback data to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and invoke an AWS Lambda function that stores data in
Amazon DynamoDB and sends the required alerts.
D. Push callback data to Amazon CloudWatch as a custom metric and use the CloudWatch alerting mechanisms to alert
System Administrators.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A Developer has implemented a Lambda function that needs to add new customers to an RDS database that is
expected to run hundreds of times per hour. The Lambda function is configured to use 512MB of RAM and is based on
the following pseudo-code:

AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE
q12

After testing the Lambda function, the Developer notices that the Lambda execution time is much longer than expected.
What should the Developer do to improve performance?
A. Increase the amount of RAM allocated to the Lambda function, which will increase the number of threads the Lambda
can use.
B. Increase the size of the RDS database to allow for an increased number of database connections each hour.
C. Move the database connection and close statement out of the handler. Place the connection in the global space.
D. Replace RDS wit Amazon DynamoDB to implement control over the number of writes per second.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A Developer created a new AWS account and must create a scalable AWS Lambda function that meets the following
requirements for concurrent execution: Average execution time of 100 seconds 50 requests per second
Which step must be taken prior to deployment to prevent errors?
A. Implement dead-letter queues to capture invocation errors
B. Add an event source from Amazon API Gateway to the Lambda function
C. Implement error handling within the application code
D. Contact AWS Support to increase the concurrent execution limits

Correct Answer: B

Lead4pass AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/aws-certified-developer-associate.html (Total Questions: 278 Q&A)

Latest Amazon AWS-SYSOPS Practice exam questions and answers

[PDF] Latest Amazon AWS-SYSOPS exam pdf: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1HEGFV0FZqEozSe92zmnKrbmrSlEgzpCE/view?usp=sharing

QUESTION 1
A user has configured a VPC with a new subnet. The user has created a security group. The user wants to configure
that instances of the same subnet communicate with each other. How can the user configure this with the security
group?
A. There is no need for a security group modification as all the instances can communicate with each other inside the
same subnet
B. Configure the subnet as the source in the security group and allow traffic on all the protocols and ports
C. Configure the security group itself as the source and allow traffic on all the protocols and ports
D. The user has to use VPC peering to configure this

Correct Answer: C

A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user\’s AWS account. AWS provides two features
that the user can use to increase security in VPC: security groups and network ACLs. Security groups work at the
instance level. If the user is using the default security group, it will have a rule which allows the instances to
communicate with others. For a new security group, the user has to specify the rule, add it to define the source as the
security group itself, and select all the protocols and ports for that source.

QUESTION 2
A SysOps Administrator is trying to set up an Amazon Route 53 domain name to route traffic to a website hosted on
Amazon S3. The domain name of the website is www.anycompany.com and the S3 bucket name is any company-static.
After the recordset is set up in Route 53, the domain name www.anycompany.com does not seem to work, and the
static website is not displayed in the browser. Which of the following is a cause of this?
A. The S3 bucket must be configured with Amazon CloudFront first
B. The Route 53 record set must have an IAM role that allows access to the S3 bucket
C. The Route 53 record set must be in the same region as the S3 bucket
D. The S3 bucket name must match the record set name in Route 53

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A user has created a VPC with a subnet and a security group. The user has launched an instance in that subnet and
attached a public IP. The user is still unable to connect to the instance. The Internet gateway has also been created.
What can be the reason for the error?
A. The internet gateway is not configured with the routing table
B. The private IP is not present
C. The outbound traffic on the security group is disabled
D. The internet gateway is not configured with the security group

Correct Answer: A

A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is a virtual network dedicated to the user\’s AWS account. AWS provides two features the
user can use to increase security in VPC: security groups and network ACLs. Security groups work at the instance level.
When a user launches an instance and wants to connect to an instance, he needs an internet gateway. The Internet
gateway should be configured with the route table to allow traffic from the Internet.

QUESTION 4
A user has enabled instance protection for his Auto Scaling group that has spot instances. If Auto Scaling wants to
terminate an instance in this Auto Scaling group due to a CloudWatch trigger unrelated to bid price, what will happen?
A. Auto Scaling will notify the user for the next action
B. Auto Scaling will remove the instance from the Auto Scaling Group
C. Auto Scaling overwrites the instance termination attribute and terminates the instances
D. The EC2 instance will not be terminated since instance protection from scale-in is enabled.

Correct Answer: D

Auto Scaling protects instances from termination during scale-in events. Does this mean that Auto Scaling instance
protection will receive the CloudWatch trigger to delete instances and delete instances in the Auto Scaling group that
do not have instance protection enabled? However, instance protection won\’t protect Spot instance termination triggered due
to market price exceeding bid price.
Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/latest/userguide/as-instance-termination.html#instance-protection

QUESTION 5
A company has created a separate AWS account for all development work to protect the production environment. In this
development account, developers have permission to manipulate IAM policies and roles. Corporate policies require that
developers are blocked from accessing some services.
What is the BEST way to grant the developers privileges in the development account while still complying with corporate
policies?
A. Create a service control policy in AWS Organizations and apply it to the development account.
B. Create a customer-managed policy in IAM and apply it to all users within the development account.
C. Create a job function policy in IAM and apply it to all users within the development account.
D. Create an IAM policy and apply it in API Gateway to restrict the development account.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-create-a-limited-iam-administrator-by-using-managedpolicies/

QUESTION 6
What does RRS stand, in the context of S3 services?
A. Regional Rights Storage
B. Relational Rights Storage
C. Regional Rights Standard
D. Reduced Redundancy Storage

Correct Answer: D

In Amazon S3, RRS stands for Reduced Redundancy Storage. Reduced redundancy storage stores objects on multiple
devices across multiple facilities, providing 400 times the durability of a typical disk drive, but it does not replicate
objects as many times as Amazon S3 standard storage. In addition, reduced redundancy storage is designed to sustain
the loss of data in a single facility. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/UsingRRS.html

QUESTION 7
Security groups in Amazon VPC __.
A. control incoming traffic only
B. control both inbound and outbound traffic
C. control neither incoming nor outgoing traffic
D. control outgoing traffic only

Correct Answer: B

Security Groups in VPC allow you to specify rules for both outgoing and incoming traffic. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/VPC_SecurityGroups.html

QUESTION 8
A user has set the Alarm for the CPU utilization > 50%. Due to an internal process, the current CPU utilization will be
80% for 6 hours. How can the user ensure that the CloudWatch alarm does not perform any action?
A. The user can disable the alarm using the DisableAlarmActions API.
B. The user can set CloudWatch in a sleep state using the CLI mon-sleep-alarm-action.
C. The user can pause the alarm from the console.
D. The user cannot stop the alarm from performing an action unless the alarm is deleted.

Correct Answer: A

The user can disable or enable the CloudWatch alarm using the DisableAlarmActions and Ena-bleAlarmActions APIs or
the mon-disable-alarm-actions and mon-enable-alarm-actions commands.
Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/DeveloperGuide/AlarmThatSendsEmail.html

QUESTION 9
An organization has decided to consolidate storage and move all of its backups and archives to Amazon S3. With all of
the data gathered into a hierarchy under a single directory, the organization determines there is 70 TB data that needs
to be uploaded. The organization currently has a 150-Mbps connection with 10 people working at the location.
Which service would be the MOST efficient way to transfer this data to Amazon S3?
A. AWS Snowball
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following requires a custom CloudWatch metric to monitor?
A. Data transfer of an EC2 instance
B. Disk usage activity of an EC2 instance
C. Memory Utilization of an EC2 instance
D. CPU Utilization of an EC2 instance

Correct Answer: C

http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/DeveloperGuide/ec2-metricscollected.html
CPU, Disk I/O, Data Transfer are default metrics. Memory is not mentioned.

QUESTION 11
A Security team is concerned about the potential of the intellectual property leaking to the internet. A SysOps Administrator
is tasked with identifying controls to address the potential problem. The servers in question reside in a VPC and cannot
be allowed to send traffic to the internet.
How can these requirements be met?
A. Edit the route for the subnet with the following entry: Destination 0.0.0.0/0 target: in-xxxxxxxx
B. Ensure that the servers do not have Elastic IP addresses.
C. Enable Enhanced Networking on the instances to control traffic flows.
D. Put the servers in a private subnet.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
When an instance terminates, Amazon EC2 uses the value of the _ attribute for each attached Amazon EBS
volume to determine whether to preserve or delete the volume.
A. InstanceInitiatedShutdownBehavior
B. DeleteOnTermination
C. EC2ModifyInstance
D. DisableApiTermination

Correct Answer: B

When an instance terminates, Amazon EC2 uses the value of the DeleteOnTermination attribute
for each attached Amazon EBS volume to determine whether to preserve or delete the volume.
Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/terminating-instances.html

QUESTION 13
EBS (Elastic Block Store) can be best described as:
A. persistent internet storage.
B. persistent block storage.
C. transient instance storage.
D. transient block storage.

Correct Answer: B

Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) provides block-level (file system type) storage volumes for use with Amazon
EC2 instances. Amazon EBS volumes are highly available and reliable storage volumes that can be attached to any
running instance that is in the same Availability Zone. Amazon EBS volumes that are attached to an Amazon EC2 the instance is exposed as storage volumes that persist independently from the life of the instance. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/AmazonEBS.html

Lead4pass AWS-SYSOPS exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/aws-sysops.html (Total Questions: 835 Q&A)

Latest GAQM CLSSBB Practice exam questions and answers

[PDF] Latest GAQM CLSSBB exam pdf: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1OffcwlbVrrgVqMKW8iHL2h0UDcmGh7rN/view?usp=sharing

QUESTION 1
A Lean Six Sigma project is attempting to reduce inventory days. The Process Capability will be monitored as part of the
Control Phase to track the sustainability of the improvement.

clssbb q1

Which distribution type is best used for performing the Capability Analysis?
A. Weibull Distribution
B. Normal Distribution
C. Exponential Distribution
D. Logistic Distribution
E. Gaussian Distribution

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
One of the approaches used by TRIZ is referred to as “removing the contradiction.” A project team is asked to
determine how many coats of paint should be applied to a panel. In this case, the contradiction is:
A. additional coats cost money but give a better finish
B. the customer wants an excellent finish at a low cost
C. the company wants to reduce costs but have an excellent finish

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The Toronto plant produces appliances in the following distribution: Type A 23% Type B 42% Type C 35% A random
sample of 300 appliances from the Texas plant has the following distribution: Type A 73 Type B 111 Type C 116 Is the
distribution of appliances at the Texas plant the same as that at the Toronto plant?
A. yes
B. no

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A team wants a technique for displaying the connection between various customer needs and various features on a
product. They should use:
A. written and diagrammed work instructions
B. flow charts and process maps
C. cause and effect diagrams
D. Pareto chart
E. relationship matrix

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
If the production is for higher volume and monitoring and the Mean and variability is to be monitored for four machines
producing a product and the characteristic to be monitored is Variable Data, which SPC Chart is best to be selected?
A. Xbar-R Chart
B. Individual-MR Chart
C. NP Chart
D. CUSUM Chart

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An experiment is conducted by checking the effect that three different pressures have on the surface appearance of a
product. Ten items are produced at each of the three pressures. The number of replications, factors, and levels are:
A. 10, 3, 2
B. 10, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 3
D. 10, 1, 3
E. 10, 3, 1

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Following process modifications, the Null Hypothesis states that no improvement to the process has occurred. If we
discover the Null Hypothesis Test was rejected when it was false, that would be a(n) ____________.
A. Alpha Error
B. Type I Error
C. Type II Error
D. Type III Error

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Martha motivates Rose mentioning that they will sell a minimum of
16 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample, whose population is assumed to follow a
Normal Distribution, taken for 30 days at 60 degrees or more an average of 15.2 pots per day were sold with a Standard
Deviation of 0.6 pots. What is the Z value for this sales process?
A. 0.67
B. 1.13
C. 1.33
D. 2.66

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
When do we compare short-term and long-term Capability which of these is true?
A. Cp is better for the short term
B. Both short-term and long-term performance are alike
C. Performance tends to improve over time
D. Cp is better for the long-term

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
SMED is an acronym for the activity that:
A. involves housekeeping in the work area
B. makes mistakes of a certain type of impossible
C. emphasizes the pull of the customer
D. reduces set up a time
E. none of the above
F. all of the above

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Deming called the technique of studying a sample to gain an understanding of the distribution of a population an
“enumerative study.” His main objection to these studies was:
A. they are too difficult to perform correctly
B. they require extensive use of computers
C. they assume a stable distribution
D. random samples are expensive to obtain
E. these studies have a high probability of Type II error

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The reported Cpk for a process with an average of 104 units, a spread of 18 units and upper and lower specification
limits of 122 and 96 units would be?
A. 0.5
B. 0.89
C. 1.00
D. 2.00

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When one speaks of 20% of something contributing 80% of the effect they are referring to what is known as the
_____.
A. Shewhart Example
B. Connection Principle
C. Balance Equation
D. Pareto Principle

Correct Answer: D

Lead4pass CLSSBB exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/clssbb.html (Total Questions: 510 Q&A)

Latest GAQM CLSSGB Practice exam questions and answers

[PDF] Latest GAQM CLSSGB exam pdf: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1bfI7MSkji_gi7ocyLTHPMcgQrawbOCzP/view?usp=sharing

QUESTION 1
Examples of a Visual Factory include which of these? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
A. White outlines on floor for proper inventory placement
B. Documented procedures with a numerical outline
C. Bad/Good indications of gauge readings with red and green outlines
D. Implementing a defect inspection device

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
The _ is important because it provides an estimate of the probability of an event occurring depending on
the Standard Deviation from the Mean.
A. Shewhart Principle
B. Pareto Rule
C. Mean/Mode Spread
D. Empirical Rule

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Process Capability is a function of which of these?
A. Customer requirements
B. Process performance
C. Output over time
D. All of these answers are correct

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Inferential Statistics is largely about Significance. There are both Practical and ____ Significance to
consider during an analysis of data in a Lean Six Sigma project.
A. Problematic
B. Impractical
C. Usable
D. Statistical

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Due to excessive pollution, GREEN Solutions Inc. is considering subsidizing public transportation to work for its
employees. According to the manager, it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation
of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles for their office commute while the
management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on
70 employees showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a
Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. Assuming a Normal Distribution for the commute times by either personal or public
transportation, which of these is true?
A. The probability that they would arrive on time using personal vehicles is much higher than using the metro public
transportation system (MPTS)
B. The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their personal vehicles
C. The two probabilities are about the same excepting in one case the consistency is higher than the other
D. We need to compile more data around weekends to incorporate for traffic differences
E. When Standard Deviation is higher the probability goes down and so the MPTS is worse

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
The use of Kanbans works best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products or services are produced.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Long-term Data represents all the variation that one can expect within the subject process.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Hypothesis Testing can save time and help avoid high costs of experimental efforts by using existing data.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The following Business Case is constructed properly.
“In business unit A there are too many flashlight returns and flashlight sales have decreased by 25 percent.”
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
The very best way to begin an effort to map a process is to do which of these?
A. Interview the process owner
B. Interview the manager of the department
C. Walk the actual process from beginning to end
D. Take pictures of the factory floor at each shift

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Hypothesis Tests determine the probabilities of differences between observed data and the hypothesis being solely due
to chance. This is determined based on the result of the __.
A. Random acts
B. P-values
C. Standard Deviations
D. R-values

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
The X-Y Diagram is a tool used to identify/collate potential X\’s and assess their relative impact on multiple Y\’s.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
For the data shown here, a Belt suspects the three grades are supplying the same results. Which statement(s) are true
for proper Hypothesis Testing?
A. The most appropriate Central Tendency to test is the Means
B. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Levene\’s test
C. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the ANOVA test
D. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood\’s Median test

Correct Answer: D

Lead4pass CLSSGB exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/clssgb.html (Total Questions: 206 Q&A)

Latest IIBA IIBA-AAC Practice exam questions and answers

[PDF] Latest IIBA IIBA-AAC exam pdf: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1cHEvlQE4QALLX0YwFWIuPMRh1e1Vdyhk/view?usp=sharing

QUESTION 1
In a planning workshop the team breaks down the product backlog increment and can assign work to members of the
team. This is referred to as:
A. Release planning
B. Task planning
C. Resource planning
D. User story writing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.agilealliance.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/08/AgileExtension_V2-Member-Copy.pdf (83)

QUESTION 2
The team members are discussing the level of effort that different backlog items are likely to require, and how much effort is available for the next sprint. This is an example of the principle: A. Analyze to determine what is valuable
B. Understand what is doable
C. Respect for individuals
D. Get real using examples

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.agilealliance.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/08/AgileExtension_V2-Member-Copy.pdf (20)

QUESTION 3
The team is open to receiving feedback on the product it\’s creating and the processes it uses to create those products.
Furthermore, they\’re using this feedback to improve every aspect of the work. This shows the team has embraced the
concept of:
A. Acting on changes while working on the solution
B. Listening to customers at predefined intervals
C. Documenting customer-driven feedback
D. Uncovering better ways of delivering solutions

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
During a backlog refinement meeting, the team uses the appropriate technique to focus discussion on backlog items
and their:
A. Technical designs and related details
B. Related users, user goals, user activities, and their importance
C. Estimates determined by the delivery team
D. Resource requirements and availability for work.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
While working at the strategy level, the team needs to ensure stakeholders actively support an environment for
constructive communication, collaboration, and continuous improvement. Do they decide to use the following to achieve
this goal?
A. Product Roadmap
B. Reviews
C. Behavior-driven development
D. Release Plans

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://vancouver.iiba.org/sites/vancouver/files/archive/Media/Downloads/CBAPCCBA%20Study%20Group%202017/Session%208-Chapter%2011_Perspectives.pdf

QUESTION 6
The standard format for documenting Behavioural Driven Development scenarios helps to maintain focus on:
A. Verifiable conditions, events, and actions
B. The user need and expected value.
C. Alignment of iterations with known user concerns.
D. The layers of modernist analysis

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.agilealliance.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/08/AgileExtension_V2-Member-Copy.pdf (66)

QUESTION 7
A team discovers that their accomplished deliverables are not impacting the goal strongly. They have several more
iterations of similar work scheduled and are ready to execute, and they expect delivering this work will produce similar
poor impacts. They choose to shift their delivery work to a different initiative while they assess the poorly performing
work for other ways that would produce good results. This shows that the team values which of the following things
highest?
A. Documenting solution outcomes
B. Developing new processes
C. Improving collaboration
D. Responding to change

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The team agrees that the agile business analysis principle of “see the whole” aligns with the BACCM core concept of:
A. Value
B. Stakeholder
C. Needs
D. Context

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.agilealliance.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/08/AgileExtension_V2-Member-Copy.pdf (23)

QUESTION 9
At the initiative level, the team concludes pre-defined *measures of success, *desired outcomes being reached, and
*alignment with organizational strategy can all be used to:
A. Access the viability of solution components built by the team
B. Enlist new team members to help develop additional solution components
C. Determine the likely response to the solution components
D. Identify possible adoption of a solution by your customers

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.agilealliance.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/08/AgileExtension_V2-Member-Copy.pdf (44)

QUESTION 10
The team realizes it is important that solution components are analyzed:
A. In great detail so as much information as possible is available for subsequent work
B. To provide answers to any potential questions from senior management
C. So enough information is available to meet all stakeholder needs
D. To a level of precision that is just enough to make an informed next decision

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.agilealliance.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/08/AgileExtension_V2-Member-Copy.pdf (44)

QUESTION 11
The team is discussing one of the six key terms used to discuss both business analysis and its relationship with
common terminology. Specifically, they are describing improvements as being deliberate and achieved through business
analysis. This team is discussing the:
A. Solution
B. Need
C. Context
D. Change

Correct Answer: D

Change is the act of transformation in response to a need. Change works to improve the performance of an enterprise.
These improvements are deliberate and controlled through business analysis activities.

QUESTION 12
The delivery team is in a meeting identifying cycle time improvement opportunities for the delivery of the final product. They
decide to apply the following technique:
A. Backlog management
B. Value stream mapping
C. Story decomposition
D. Story mapping

Correct Answer: B

Value stream mapping complete, fact-based, time-series representation of the stream of activities required to deliver a
product or service.

QUESTION 13
The delivery team wants to ensure stakeholders contribute value on an ongoing basis for delivering the solution. This is
an example of the following agile analysis principle:
A. Retrospective input and observations
B. Avoiding waste and unused functionality
C. Stimulate collaboration and continuous improvement
D. Value of assessing problems in a timely manner

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.agilealliance.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/08/AgileExtension_V2-Member-Copy.pdf (21)

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